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hSCAP 2009 allotment Results: HSC Applications Status

hSCAP 2009 allotment Results: HSC Applications Status

Higher Secondary admissions 2009

To check your Application status: click here

HSC Admission updated info visit site

Any info regarding about this you can share in comments.
I will update more. thanks


T20 World cup 2009 Schedule Cricket Match Timings

ICC T20 World Cup 2009 Schedule 

T20 World cup 2009 Schedule Timings. Cricket Live on ESPN, Star Sports, Star Cricket
India t20 world cup schedule cricket matches.

ICC Twenty20 Cricket World Cup 2009

Group AGroup BGroup CGroup D
IndiaPakistanAustraliaNew Zealand
BangladeshEnglandSri LankaSouth Africa
IrelandNetherlandsWest IndiesScotland
Group EA1, B2, C1, D2Group FB1, A2, C2, D1

DateLord'sTrent BridgeThe Oval
Fri, 5 JuneOpening ceremony

England v Netherlands
22:00 IST

Sat, 6 June India v Bangladesh
22:00 IST
New Zealand v Scotland
14:30 IST

Australia v West Indies
18:00 IST

Sun, 7 June  South Africa v Scotland
18:00 IST

England v Pakistan
22:00 IST

Mon, 8 June Ireland v Bangladesh
18:00 IST

Australia v Sri Lanka
22:00 IST

Tues, 9 JunePakistan v Netherlands
18:00 IST

New Zealand v South Africa
22:00 IST

Wed, 10 June Sri Lanka v West Indies
18:00 IST

India v Ireland
22:00 IST


Placement for the Super Eight stage is determined as follows:
The first two teams in each group are placed 1 or 2. They will retain this position for the Super Eight stage, irrespective of whether they finish first or second in their group, unless they are knocked out by the team 3 in their group. In this instance, team 3 replaces the position of the team they knock out.

DateLord'sTrent BridgeThe Oval
Thu, 11 June D1 v A2 (18:00 IST)
B2 v D2 (22:00 IST)
Fri, 12 JuneB1 v C2 (18:00 IST)
A1 v C1 (22:00 IST)
Sat, 13 June  C1 v D2 (18:00 IST)
D1 v B1 (22:00 IST)
Sun, 14 JuneA2 v C2 (18:00 IST)
A1 v B2 (22:00 IST)
Mon, 15 June  B1 v A2 (18:00 IST)
B2 v C1 (22:00 IST)
Tues, 16 June D1 v C2 (18:00 IST)
D2 v A1 (22:00 IST)

The teams finishing first and second in groups E and F, based on points obtained in the Super Eight stage will compete in the semi-finals

DateLord'sTrent BridgeThe Oval
Thu, 18 June Women's semi-final
A1 v B2 (18:00 IST)

Men's semi-final
E1 v F2 (22:00 IST)

Fri, 19 June  Women's semi-final
B1 v A2 (18:00 IST)

Men's semi-final
F1 v E2 (22:00 IST)

Sun, 21 JuneWomen's final
14:30 IST

Men's final
19:30 IST

Closing ceremony



HM PMT Results 2009 Himachal Pradesh University MBBS BDS Entrance Results

HM PMT 2009 Results -by Himachal Pradesh University

Himachal Pradesh Combined Pre Medical Entrance Test for admission to MBBS and BDS courses.

These admissions into medical and dental colleges. The Results will be kept at the Himachal University website
Site link

futher details and updates visit the official site

Himachl University at

BIEC Patna Intermediate Results available at Bihar Intermediate Education Council

BIEC Patna Intermediate Results available at Bihar Intermediate Education Council

Bihar Intermediate Education 12 results, BIEC Patna Intermediate Results
Bihar Intermediate Examination Results announced, The results would be available online on website at the following link:
Bihar School Examination Board


UPTU College Rankings and Councelling UPTU SEE Toppers of 2009

UPTU College Rankings
Admission counselling of qualified candidates would begin after July 10.
Uttar Pradesh Technical University (UPTU) has given ranking to the institutions providing Graduation & Post Graduation programs affiliatedunder it on the basis of theory examination marks in MBA, MCA & B.Tech courses.

Updated College ranking list in Official site.
Uptu site showing 2007-2008 year Rankings Try this link:
If you found any info pls let us know. Feel free to comment.

if u got the link pls comment. it would be help to all.

Counseling Schedule of UPTU SEE 2009 download
SEE 2009 Toppers :
  • BTech - Shubham Toshniwal of Agra
  • BPharma -Anuj Singh of Shahjahanpur
  • BArch -Yogesh Sharma of Delhi
  • BHMCT -Ashima Vishnoi of Bijnor -in Bachelor of Hotel Management and Catering Technology
  • BTech (BSc) -Swami Nath Yadav of Mau district
  • MBA -Mohammad Azharuddin
  • MCA -Ayush Agarwal

Admission counselling of qualified candidates would begin after July 10.

The counselling would be held after the counselling for JEE and AIEEE would be over according to resources.

UPTU SEE 2009 Exam Results:

What are the top 10 private engineering colleges of uptu?

UPTU TOP -10 Colleges

  • 2. I.E.T LUCKNOW
  • 4. JSS NOIDA

These lit is based on an overall rank list as per 2009 IHRM norms

taken from wiki


How to Buy NBA Final Tickets Online

How to Buy NBA Final Tickets Online
How to BUY NBA Final Tickets

The NBA Finals are being held at the Staples Center in Los Angeles, with a capacity of just under 19,000 people. Tickets went on sale at between $250 and $20,000, and at the time of writing were selling extremely fast (only a handful remained for the first game.)

You can try directly with your local ticket seller, although many won’t be able to help once tickets sell out. Try online for availability first. If you are too late, trying second hand markets. eBay offers buyer protection through Paypal, making it a safer bet than some other sites. At the time of writing this post, a range of NBA Finals tickets were available on ebay: see the widget following for the best prices. 

If you can’t get a ticket (or simply can’t afford one) we’ll have details later this week on the best places to watch NBA Finals series online.

Tags : tickets, NBA, nba finals, nba finals schedule, nba finals tickets, nba finals tickets 2009, orlando magic tickets Subscribe

NBA Finals 2009 Schedule and Timings

NBA Final Match Schedule and Timings

The NBA Finals are ready to start at the Staples Center in Los Angeles, 
Tickets went on sale at between $250 and $20,000, and at the time of writing were selling extremely fast (only a handful remained for the first game.)
Stadium Capacity below 19,000 people.

NBA Final Schedule:
  1. Game 1, Thursday, June 4: Orlando at L.A., 6 p.m. 
  2. Game2, Sunday, June 7: Orlando at L.A., 5 p.m.
  3. Game 3, Tuesday, June 9: L.A. at Orlando, 6 p.m. 
  4. Game 4, Thursday, June 11: L.A. at Orlando, 6 p.m. 
  5. Game 5*, Sunday, June 14: L.A. at Orlando, 5 p.m. 
  6. Game 6*, Tuesday, June 16: Orlando at L.A., 6 p.m. 
  7. Game 7*, Thursday, June 18: Orlando at L.A., 6 p.m.

How to BUY NBA Final Tickets

You can try directly with your local ticket seller, although many won’t be able to help once tickets sell out. Try online for availability first. If you are too late, trying second hand markets. eBay offers buyer protection through Paypal, making it a safer bet than some other sites. At the time of writing this post, a range of NBA Finals tickets were available on ebay: see the widget following for the best prices. If you can’t get a ticket (or simply can’t afford one) we’ll have details later this week on the best places to watch NBA Finals series online.
Tags : tickets, NBA, nba finals, nba finals schedule, nba finals tickets, nba finals tickets 2009, orlando magic tickets Subscribe: Inquisitr RSS Feed, Email, Twitter

AIEEE Results 2009 | Solutions Key

AIEEE Results 2009 Results at

AIEEE Results 2009 find results aieee 2009, aieee2009, aieee results, AIEEE 2009 Results

All India Engineering Entrance Examination aieee 2009, aieee2009, aieee results, 

AIEEE 2009 Results would be announced on Saturday(30-May-2009) by 2 p.m.

The AIEEE 2009 results would be available on the following sites:

All India Engineering Entrance Examination for admission in to all the 20 National institutes of Technology (NITs), five Indian institutes of information Technology (IIITs) and  11 Central and State funded Universities and 19 self financed institutes.The admission process completely Online for the convenience of the students and they can exercise their choices for branches and institutes online from anywhere.All the candidates declared eligible for central counselling by the CBSE based on the AIEEE 2009 ranks will have to register online during June 8 to 28.’’ 

AIEEE 2009 - ANSWER KEY >> Click Here



UPSee 2009 | Results of UPTU 2009 check results |Answer Key Solutions

Scheme of State Entrance Examination 2009 Results

Uttar Pradesh Technical University SEE 2009 Results and Answerkey

Results of UPTU SEE 2009 Result will be declared today.
Check results on given link here.
Results sites:

U P Technical University (UPTU) - SEE Examination 2009 Results announced on 31st May 2009 at 12.30 P.M. and announed Answerkey

Answer Key:
Click to see the answer keys

Based on performance of candidates in SEE-UPTU: 2009, separate merit lists will be prepared for each course. Merit position, score-card with total marks and marks obtained in each subject shall be available on website after the declaration of result.

The cut-off percentage of marks in SEE UPTU: 2009 for the merit of successful candidates is 25% (20%
for SC/ST), which may be reduced by Govt., if required

For more information visit

The results of UPTU 2009

Results of UPTU SEE 2009 Result will be declared today.
Check results on given link here.
Results sites:UPSee 2009
Results of UPTU 2009 check results Answer Key Solutions

DCE solutions 2009 Answerkey Download

DCE 2009 Solutions DCE 2009 Answeker Key download Dear Students our team Trying to collelct the Answers key. DCE 2009 Answer Key you can just take look at these websites :- 

Download Answerkey: click here 

Delhi Combined Entrance Exam DCE 2009 for admission to Delhi University’s College of Engineering DCE for 2009 - 2010 will be held on May 30, 2009 Dowload Solutions to Delhi Combined Entrance Exam 2009 (DCE CEE) Solution Key

Source: Click here


Jharkhand intermediate council - 10th Class results

Jharkhand intermediate council - 10th Class results 

Jharkhand intermediate council declared 10th Class results today

Students eagarly waiting for results of 10th class. Results would be announced 30-May-2009
Anxiety and eagerness among the students and parents are all time high as the Jharkhand Academic Council is declare class 10th results today. This year pass percentage is likely to go up. 
I am also hoping for fine results.

Resultwilll be available to view online at 
Ranchi , Results , JAC , Jharkhand intermediate council
Jharkhand intermediate council declared 10th Class results today
Jharkhand intermediate council declared 10th Class results today

TNDTE results 2009 available on

TNDTE results 2009 available on
TNDTE Resutsls TNDTE Results  TNDTE Results TNDTE Results TNDTE Results

DOTE (Directorate Of Technical Education) and TNDTE offering diploma courses examination.
Notificaiton Detials available at

The results Will announced on

For the results - links will be updated soon

Presidency College Admissions 2009 details Apply Online

Presidency College Admissions 2009 and Notification details

Presidency College NAAC-Accredited Grade 'A+' Institution

Admission Details: How to apply _ Last Dates_Entrance Date **

Admission to the First Year B.A./B.Sc. classes for the session 2009-2010 will be conducted as per the following schedule:
1. On-line submission of the application - 30sth May to 7th June 2009
(log on to

2. Receiving of application fee at the College Office (after on-line submission) - 2nd to 8th June 2009
(excepting Sunday and holidays)
11.30 A.M. to 3.30 P.M.

3. Admission tests to be held on 10th - 13th June 2009

4. Publication of Merit Lists
(1st list with number of qualified candidates equal to the number of seats and 2nd list with number of qualified candidates five times the number of seats) 26th June (after 3.00 P.M.)
to be displayed on the Admission Notice Boards in the Main Building, Departmental Notice Board and in the website

5. Counselling and Admission
  • 1st July 2009 (for B.A.)
  • 2nd July 2009 (for B.Sc.)
  • 3rd July 2009 (for B.Sc.)

6.Welcome address by the Principal at the Derozio Hall and Classes to start on 6th July 2009 (at 11.00 A.M.)

7. Declaration of the vacancy position 22nd July 2009 (at 3.00 P.M.)
8. Counselling and admission for vacant seats (if any) 24th August 2009 (at 11.00 A.M.)

Prayanam Movie Review Download Prayanam songs free Officially

Telugu movie review, telugu songs download, movie review, prayanam, prayanam songs, pryanam movie review
Movie Review: Prayanam

Read Review and Download songs for free. Director , Producer of Prayanam is providng songs free

AP SSC 2009 Results: 10th Class Exam Results will be announced Today by 10.45 am

Andhra Pradesh Board SSC Results 2009 

Check Results now at and

Andhra Pradesh State Board SSC Results 2009 will be announced today (27-May-09) by 10.45 am

Results will be available  on the following sites:

Prop-8 Decision: California Supreme Court's Prop-8 Decision

The voters of California once again voted on the issue via Prop 8. and once again, the people of California decided that marriage was only valid between a man and a woman.

Then unsurprisingly, the pro-gay marriage crowd in California, which is completely overrun with loud, obnoxious, virulently anti-Christian punks in the midst of a year long temper tantrum, insisted the court once again overturn the will the people.

Apparently, thwarting the rule-of-law twice was a bit much even for the California Supreme Court, which declined to overturn Prop 8 by a 6-to-1.

Read more clickhere


EPPICARD Latest News: florida child support

EPPICard: With this card you can access your payments online safely and securely.

With the use of EOO++ cardholders can purchase goods and services directly from retailers and even get cash back. They can also withdraw cash from any participating ATM or bank location. Payments are automatically loaded onto your new EPPICard and can be used immediately.

Read more about Eppicard

Reed bill would ban using welfare aid for booze

By The Indiana Gazette

House Approves Reed Welfare Reform Bil: Legislation would prohibit the use of welfare and child support to purchase alcohol -- The House Wednesday approved a welfare reform bill sponsored by Rep. Dave Reed, R-Indiana, that would prohibit the use of welfare and child support payments to purchase alcohol.

(Originally published Thursday, May 7, 2009)

``Welfare dollars should not be used to purchase alcohol,'' Reed said. ``We always have to remember, one person's welfare dollar started out as another person's tax dollar. That taxpayer deserves to know that they didn't go to work and pay their taxes so that a welfare recipient could go out and buy a bottle of alcohol.''

The bill passed 196-0.

Reed's legislation - House Bill 74 - would prevent state liquor stores and beer distributorships from accepting electronic benefit cards (EBTs), which are part of the Pennsylvania Department of Public Welfare's (DPW) cash assistance and food stamp programs.

Reed announced the result of the vote in real time on his social-network page on Constituents responded with expressions of support. Many were incredulous that the use of public-assistance cards for the purchase of alcohol already was not prohibited.

``Every welfare dollar that is used to purchase alcohol is another dollar that isn't available to help someone truly in need,'' Reed said. ``Welfare programs should be aimed at providing basic necessities, such as food and clothing, for people who are down on their luck. It shouldn't be a taxpayer subsidy to pay for a welfare recipient's drinking habit.''

Read more about this Click here

JTO 2008 Jto Answer key Solutions Previous Papers 2008, 2009

JTO 2008 Jto Answer key Solutions Previous Papers 2008
The JTO 2008 below , JTO 2009 updated link

BSNL JTO Previous Question Paper 2008

Examination for selection of JTO (Junior Telecom Officer)
Conducted By: BSNL (Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited) in June 2008

Number of Questions: 120
Maximum Marks:120
Type of Questions:Objective Type (Multiple Choice)

1. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is
a. Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.
b. Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the pointing vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.
c. The pointing vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.
d. The pointing vector points everywhere radially into the volume between the plates.
2. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to
a. Polarization
b. Conductivity
c. Structural homogeneties
d. Ionization
3. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silicon
a. Boron
b. Indium
c. Germanium
d. Antimony
4. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess
a. High thermal conductivity and high melting point
b. Low thermal conductivity and low melting point
c. High thermal conductivity and low melting point
d. Low thermal conductivity and high melting point
5. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the
a. infrared region
b. ultraviolet region
c. visible region
d. x-ray region
6. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively
a. high and high
b. low and high
c. high and low
d. low and low
7. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used to suppress
a. odd harmonics
b. even harmonics
c. fundamental component
d. dc component
8. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
a. mutual inductance between two coils only
b. self inductances of the two coils only
c. mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils
d. none
9. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of
a. paper
b. rubber
c. ceramic
d. Mylar
10. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron isa. always positive
b. always negative
c. sometime positive, sometime negative
d. numerically less than its kinetic energy
11. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no -
a. channel
b. gate
c. P-N junctions
d. substrate
12.The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge over the normal strain gauge is that
a. it is more sensitive
b. it is more linear
c. it is less temperature dependent
d. it’s cost is low
13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by
a. thermally generated electrons and holes
b. diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
c. migration of minority carriers across the junction
d. flow of drift current
14. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter
a. recombine with holes in the base
b. recombine in the emitter itself
c. pass through the base to the collector
d. are stopped by the junction barrier
15. The value of r when a transistor is biased to cut off is -
a. 0.5
b. 0
c. 1.0
d. 0.8
16. A UJT can
a. be triggered by any one of it’s three terminals
b. not be triggered
c. be triggered by two of its three terminal only
d. be triggered by all of its terminals only
17. An SCR can only be turned off via it’s
a. cathode
b. anode
c. gates
d. none
18. Gold is often diffused into silicon DN junction devices to
a. increase the recombination rate
b. reduce the recombination rate
c. make silicon a direct gap semiconductor
d. make silicon semi-metal
19. With n nodes and b branches a network will have
a. (b + n) links
b. b - n + 1 links
c. b - n - 1 links
d. b + n + 1 links
20. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be
a. 7
b. 9
c. 10
d. 45
21. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give
a. an output power which is one - quarter of the input power
b. an output power which is one - half of the input power
c. an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage
d. an output power which is 0.707 of the input power
22. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer -
a. the terminals are kept shorted
b. critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals
c. the terminals are kept open circuited
d. it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals
23. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. Which of the following values represent full series and R1 and shunt arm R2?
1. R1 = 147W 2. R1 = 153W
3. R2 = 1.5W 4. R2 = 3750W
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
24. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294mH/m and capacitance 60pF/m is
a. 49w
b. 60w
c. 70w
d. 140w
25. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
26. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network
1. Z11 = Z22 2. h12 = h21
3. Y12 = -Y21 4. BC - AD = -1
then the network is reciprocal if and only if
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 3 and 4 are correct
d. 4 alone is correct
27. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are
a. will become half
b. will remain high
c. will become double
d. cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known
28. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and uniform charge density d in vacuum is-
Ans. 5.4×109xQ2/r where Q=4/3(pie.r3d
29. Maxwell’s divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by
Ans. y
30. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 l at frequency f and if it’s radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then it’s radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be
a. R/2 ohms
b. R ohms
c. 2R ohms
d. 4R ohms
31. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include
a. TE111 and TM111
b. TE011 and TM011
c. TE022 and TM111
d. TE111 and TM011
32. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then it’s efficiency will be nearly
a. 0.19
b. 0.81
c. 0.97
d. 1.19
33. If an isolated conducting sphere in air has radius = 1/ 4pqe0 it capacitance will be
a. Zero
b. IF
c. 4pF
d. OF
34. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in it’s characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHz signal then if ‘d’ is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then
a. d = 1.5 cm
b. d is less then 1.5 cm
c. d is greater than 1.5 cm
d. d = 3cm
35. When a dipole antenna of l/8 length has an equivalent total loss resistance of 1.5 W then the efficiency of the antenna isa. 0.89159 %
b. 8.9159 %
c. 89.159 %
d. 891.59 %
36. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally
a. 5 KHz
b. 15 KHz
c. 75 KHz
d. 200 KHz
37. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is
a. sinusoidal
b. square
c. rectangular
d. triangular
38. Strain gauge is
a. not a transducer
b. an active transducer
c. not an electronic instrument
d. none
39. A high Q coil has
a. large band width
b. high losses
c. low losses
d. flat response
40. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is
a. 1.810%
b. 0.181%
c. 18.10%
d. 0.0018%
41. The ‘h’ parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for
a. High frequency, large signal operation
b. High frequency, small signal operation
c. Low frequency, small signal operation
d. Low frequency, large signal operation
42. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on -
a. Values of input in the past and in the future
b. Values of input at that time and in the past
c. Values of input at that time and in the future
d. None
43. A iron cored choke is a
a. Linear and active device
b. Non linear and passive device
c. Active device only
d. Linear device only
44. Pointing vector wattmeter uses
a. Seebeck effect
b. Ferranti effect
c. Induction effect
d. Hall effect
45. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense ?a. Thermocouple
b. Piezoelectric pick - up
c. Photo voltaic cell
d. LCD
46. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, dc to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is
a. Converter system
b. Inverter
c. Chopper
d. Thyristor
47. It is a unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode
a. SCR
b. PCR
c. VCR
d. DCR
48. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a
a. constant voltage source
b. constant current source
c. constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source
d. resistance
49. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of
a. electrons only
b. electrons or holes
c. electrons and holes
d. holes only
50. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primary to secondary are respectively
a. ferrite: 20: 1
b. laminated iron: 1: 1
c. ferrite: 1: 1
d. powdered iron: 1: 1
51. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse modes is a
a. 1 phase full converter
b. 3 phase half wave converter
c. 3 phase semi converter
d. 3 phase full converter
52. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is
a. square wave
b. triangular wave
c. step function
d. pulsed wave
53. A single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with center tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is
a. 100V
b. 141.4V
c. 200V
d. 282.8V
54. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying
a. T keeping Ton constant
b. Ton keeping T constant
c. Toff keeping T constant
d. None of the above
55. From the hot metal surface electrons escape because
a. of change of state from metal to gas due to heat.
b. of change of stats from gas to metal.
c. the energy supplied is greater than the work function
d. the energy is greater than Fermi level.
56. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is -
a. amplifier
b. triode
c. diode
d. transistor
57. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is
a. Either cathode
b. Either anode
c. The central tap on the high voltage secondary
d. Either plate
58. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will
a. Amplify the noise as much as the signal
b. Reduce the noise
c. Increase the noise
d. Not effect the noise
59. Match the given feedback circuit with it’s proper nomenclatures
a. Current series feedback
b. Current shunt feedback
c. Voltage series feedback
d. Voltage shunt feedback
60. Class A amplifier is used when
a. No phase inversion is required
b. Highest voltage gain is required
c. dc voltages are to be amplified
d. Minimum distortion is desired
61. Identify the correct match for the given transistor
a. Enhancement type P channel MOSFET
b. Depletion type N channel MOSFET
c. Enhancement type N channel MOSFET
d. Depletion type P channel MOSFET
62. In case a signal band limited to fm is sampled at a rate less than 2fm, the constructed signal will be
a. Distortion less
b. Small in amplitude
c. Having higher frequencies suppressed
d. Distorted
63. Quad 2 input AND gates IC No is
a. 7411
b. 7404
c. 7400
d. 7408
64. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as
a. left shift register
b. right shift register
c. shift registers
d. none of the above
65. The expression ABC can be simplified to
Ans. A + B + C
66. An ideal power supply consist of
a. Very small output resistance
b. Zero internal resistance
c. Very large input resistance
d. Very large output resistance
67. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by
68. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both
a. count pulses
b. store binary operation
c. shift registers
d. made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip
69. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as
a. 1111101
b. 0001 0010 0101
c. 7D
d. None of the above
70. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50mv and the total maximum input is 10v. The number of bits required is
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 200
71. On differentiation unit impulse function results in
a. Unit parabolic function.
b. Unit triplet.
c. Unit doublet.
d. Unit ramp function.
72. Read the following;
i. Routh Hermitz’s criterion is in time domain.
ii. Root locus plot is in time domain.
iii. Bode plot is in frequency domain.
iv. Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain.
a. 2, 3, and 4 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 3 and 4 are correct
d. All four are correct.
73. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function.
a. 150
b. 450
c. 300
d. 600
74. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is
a. Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain.
b. Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action.
c. Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback.
d. Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action.
75. Identity slope change at w = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function
a. -40dB/dec to -20dB/dec
b. 40dB/dec to 20dB/dec
c. -20dB/dec to -40dB/dec
d. 40dB/dec to -20dB/dec
76. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by
Number of asymptotes of its root loci is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
77. In a closed - loop transfer function
the imaginary axis intercepts of the root loci will be
78. Considering the following statement:
In a magic tee
1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other
2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm
3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm
4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other.
Of these statements
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 1 and 4 are correct
d. 2 and 3 are correct
79. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called
b. EARLY BIRD (Intel sat -1)
d. MOLNIYA80. — watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite
a. 100
b. 500
c. 2000
d. 1000
81. The ripple factor in an LC filter
a. Increases with the load current
b. Increases with the load resistance
c. Remains constant with the load current
d. Has the lowest value
82. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their
a. Language digits
b. Access digits
c. Area codes
d. Central office codes
83. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because
a. it is move noise immune than other modulation systems
b. compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power
c. its use avoids receiver complexity
d. no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity
84. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be
a. linear amplifier
b. harmonic generators
c. class C power amplifiers
d. class B untuned amplifiers
85. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on
a. maximum power of the transmitter
b. pulse repetition frequency
c. width of the transmitted pulse
d. sensitivity of the radar receiver
86. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to
a. equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace.
b. help vertical synchronization
c. help horizontal synchronization.
d. simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse
87. The frequency range 30MHz - 300MHz is
a. medium frequency
b. very high frequency
c. super high frequency
d. Infrared frequency
88. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide
a. TE
b. TM
c. TEM
d. HE
89. Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at
a. upto 18kms from earth
b. from 18 to 70 km
c. 70 to 500 km
d. above 500 km
90. A two cavity klystron tube is a
a. velocity modulated tube
b. frequency modulated tube
c. Amplitude modulated tube
d. simple triode
91. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get
a. doubled
b. quadrupted
c. unchanged
d. halved
92. Which one is a cross field tube
a. Klystron
b. Reflex Klystron
c. Magnetron
d. TWT
93. The degree of coupling depends on
a. size of hole
b. location of holes
c. size and location of holes
d. not depend on size or location of hole
94. The thermal noise depends on
a. direct current through device
b. resistive component of resistance
c. reactive component of impedance
d. load to connected
95. The charge on a hole is
Ans. 1.6×10-19
96. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier
a. is tuned above the stations incoming frequency
b. amplifies the output of local oscillator
c. is fixed tuned to one particular frequency
d. can be tuned to various isolate frequencies
97. A duplexer is used to
1) couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference
2) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator
3) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver
4) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference
98. Intel’s 8085 microprocessor chip contains
a. seven 8 bit registers
b. 8 seven bits registers
c. seven 7
d. eight 8
99. Boolean algebra is based on
a. numbers
b. logic
c. truth
d. symbols
100. When A = 0, B = 0, C = 1 then in 2 input logic gate we get - - gate
a. XOR
b. AND
d. NOR
101. With the beginnings of space travel, we entered a new - -
a. Era of great history
b. List
c. Book
d. Year
102. An - - though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad.
a. Funny poem
b. Newspaper article
c. Orthodox talk
d. Elegy
103. If stare is glance so gulp is
a. Sip
b. Tell
c. Salk
d. Admire
104. He hardly works means
a. The work is hard
b. He is hard
c. The work is easy
d. He works very little
105. Give the opposite word for pulchritude
a. antipathy
b. unsightliness
c. inexperience
d. languor
106. Nanometre is - - - - part of a metre.
a. Millionth
b. Ten millionth
c. Billionth
d. Ten billionth
107. Malaria affects
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Intestine
d. Lungs
108. Sindhu Rakshak is a/an
a. Aircraft carrier
b. Submarine
c. Multiple-purpose fighter
d. Anti-aircraft gun
109. With which subject is “Dada Saheb Phalke Award” associated?
a. Best film director
b. Best musician
c. Best documentary
d. Best work relating to promotion of Indian film Industry
110. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as Calculus?
a. Aryabhatta
b. Newton
c. Einstein
d. Archimedes
111. In which state is Kanha Park situated?
a. M.P.
b. U.P.
c. Assam
d. W. Bengal
112. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day?
a. 24th October
b. 4th July
c. 8th August
d. 10th December
113. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of
a. Gupta architecture
b. Rashtrakuta architecture
c. Chalukya architecture
d. Chola architecture
114. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by
a. Joint sitting of the two Houses
b. President of India
c. Prime Minister of India
d. By a special committee for the purpose
115. Which of the following is not the work of Kalidasa?
a. Meghdoot
b. Raghuvansha
c. Sariputra Prakarma
d. Ritushamhara
116.Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of
a. Akbar the Great
b. Mahmud Ghaznvi
c. Shah Jahan
d. Alauddin Khilji
117. The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ have been taken from
a. Vedas
b. Bhagwad Gita
c. Mundaka Upanishada
d. Mahabharata
e. None of these
118. Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb?
a. USA
c. China
d. Pakistan
119. “Kathakali” dance is connected with
a. Kerala
b. Rajasthan
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Tamil Nadu
120. The term “Ashes” is associated with
a. Hockey
b. Cricket
c. Soccer
d. none of these READMORE...

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Dolla Shooting Suspect Booked for Murder

The man police arrested at LAX yesterday after the shooting death of rapper Dolla has been booked for murder.

23-year-old Aubrey Berry was booked early this morning and his bail was set at $1,000,000.

Cops say two other "persons of interest" -- who were allegedly at the airport with Berry at the time of the shooting -- are being questioned.


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